Is it for us today?

     Today there is a great controversy over this single phrase. It is said that today under the new covenant we are under grace and need not follow the Torah/Tanach (called ignorantly the Old Testament). Those who dare suggest the Torah is alive today are immediately accused of Judaizing. Careful study is needed in understanding this topic so that we come to the true conclusion on the matter based on scripture and not based on tradition or emotions.    

      In no wise does the author of this article claim to know every scripture that could clarify this subject. My attempt will be to present the Scriptures as they are stated and to limit myself to common sense commentary that all should be able to clearly see in the Scriptures that will be presented. My request to you is that you do the research for yourself in a honest manner, in all submission to the Scriptures (not your church, emotions, biased, interpretations, pastor, etc), let the words (and their original meanings) speak for themselves and leave behind the glasses of tradition and doctrine as you read.

     All passages will use the NAS version unless otherwise stated. Exception: All verses in the NAS that uses the name Jehovah I have changed to YHVH as it is impossible for HIS name to have been Jehovah.

Genesis 7:2,8 Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee seven and seven, the male and his female; and of the beasts that are not clean two, the male and his female:

     We see without argument that G-d already had in His mind which animals were clean and unclean. This same distinction must have be given Noah for him to follow the instructions concerning bringing the animals on the ark. This is prior to the laws ever being given concerning the very same thing in Leviticus 11:2-30.

     Some will argue that Noah did not follow the dietary laws because he ate only herbs prior to the flood.  That is correct but this has nothing to do with the FACT that in YHVH's mind (this is what matters most) He has already separated the animals into categories.  Those were categories that Noah more than likely followed after the flood.  Why would he have eaten something that YHVH had already told him was unclean?

To those who say that the Torah is bondage I ask why is it that even today any health professional will tell you the same thing? What would Yeshua (Jesus) dying on the cross have to do with YHVH's loving instructions to us not to eat these things that are harmful to us? 

Genesis 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my Torah.

Abraham even kept Torah, this is before it was revealed to the Hebrews.  The point again is that this shows that Torah was apart of YHVH long before the Israelites and the Ten Commandments.  Was it everything that He later revealed to the Israelites?  I can't answer that question but we see that YHVH HIMSELF testifies that Abraham kept it.

Exodus 16:23-26 And he said to them, This is that which YHVHhas spoken. Tomorrow is a solemn rest, a holy sabbath to YHVH.....

     Contrary to popular opinion the Sabbath was not started with the Ten Commandments. Again without argument this Scripture shows clearly that the Sabbath had already been established before the law. Could it possibly be that all of the Torah was established in the mind of G-d long before they were given out? These first two Scriptures shows this without doubt.

Exodus 31:13 Speak thou also unto the children of Israel, saying, Verily ye shall keep my sabbaths: for it is a sign between me and you throughout your generations; that ye may know that I am YHVH who sanctifieth you.

     This verse seems to be some legal loophole that many use to show that the Sabbath was only to Yisrael since YHVHspeaks of it as a sign between Him and Yisrael. Here's my challenge that I hope you will dwell on for some time, WHO is was He speaking to at this particular point? Was there another group He should have added to this statement seeing how He was only revealing His will to Israel at the time?

     Let's say that I wanted my child to look both ways in crossing the street (because it's obvious that if I loved him I would give him this life saving instructions ). Let's say it would be nice for others to do the same so I want my son to be an example. Would I talk about how I want all the children to do this? Would my neglecting to state such at that precise moment mean that I did not have that desire in my heart. To prove that let's say later on I do make mention that all children who followed these instructions were safer would that show you that I wanted all children to follow this? If it does let's examine this statement made by YHVH himself:

Isaiah 8:20  To the Torah (law Hebrew word is Torah) and to the testimony! if they speak not according to this word, surely there is no light in them.

Isaiah 56:6-7 Also the foreigners that join themselves to YHVH[through the covenant made to Israel], to minister unto him, and to love the name of YHVH, to be his servants, every one that keepeth the sabbath from profaning it, and holdeth fast my covenant; 7. even them will I bring to my holy mountain, and make them joyful in my house of prayer: their burnt-offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon mine altar; for my house shall be called a house of prayer.

Wow this says that if foreigners wanted to be right with YHVH all they had to do was join in on the covenant given Israel which included Sabbath keeping. For those that love to run to the idea that we are under a new covenant, let us examine what is the SCRIPTURAL definition of the New Covenant (actually renewed covenant, study to come). 

Hebrews 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the HOUSE OF ISRAEL After those days, saith the Lord; I will put MY LAWS (Torah) into their mind, And on their heart also will I write them: And I will be to them a G-d, And they shall be to me a people:

     As in the Tanach so with the Messianic Writings (called the New Testament), the covenant is given to Israel only. As with the covenant then, those who would join themselves to YHVH through Yeshua will join in this covenant. One should look at all the Scriptures where it is stated, to the Jew first then to the Greek (Gentile). G-d does not change and He did not change concerning the application of His covenants.

Isaiah 66:17 They that sanctify themselves and purify themselves to go unto the gardens [to worship idols], behind one in the midst, eating swine's flesh [a violation of Leviticus 11], and the abomination, and the mouse [a violation of Leviticus 11], they shall come to an end together, saith Yahweh.

First read the context from which this verse comes from. In doing that no one would be able to argue that this is dealing with the end of time during the Millennium Kingdom. The question is why if the law was done away by Yeshua's death why would one be punished so far in the future?

      This question presents a contradiction unless it is that we are in contradiction of our understanding of Torah. If it has not gone anywhere then this verse runs smoothly with Torah being around today. If it has gone somewhere then we need to figure out how does this prophetic statement make any sense? Will YHVH destroy those who violate Torah if He was the one to tell us that it has been done away with?

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Zechariah 14:21 Yea, every pot in Yerushalayim and in Judah shall be holiness unto the LORD of hosts: and all they that sacrifice shall come and take of them, and seethe therein: and in that day there shall be no more the Canaanite in the house of the LORD of hosts.

Read also Ezekiel chapters 44-48

Matthew 5:17 THINK NOT that I came to destroy the law/Torah or the prophets: I came not to destroy, but to fulfil [Greek Word: pleroo: from Greek Strong's Number 4134; to make replete, level up, to furnish, satisfy, execute, finish (a period or task), verify. These definitions don't have anything to do with meaning to make void the law. The statement itself verifies that, we can't have a contradiction in the same statement. The above are for those that would think that when Yehsua said fulfill, he meant to say do away with.] 18. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass away from the law/Torah, till all things be accomplished. 19. Whosoever therefore shall break [Greek word: lou: GSN 3089: loosens or relaxes one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

     First things first, what did he mean till all things be accomplished? Many will say all things were accomplished at the stake (what people call cross). I seriously beg to differ and you should too! I'm sure it should be easy for us to both agree that many things are left to be accomplished. What are they: Sin still needs to be destroyed for good, Satan still needs to go, death needs conquering, sinners eliminated, the Kingdom still needs to be established, the second coming of Yehshua still has not taken place, heaven and earth passing away, etc.

     If one would pays attention to this dynamic statement Yeshua mentioned that the Torah would not pass till after heaven and earth passes first. Why did he mention this, it is because even after heaven and earth passes away there will still be a few things left needing to be taken care of.

Acts 25:8 while Paul said in his defense, Neither against the law/Torah of the Jews, nor against the temple, nor against Caesar, have I sinned at all.

     Look at that statement again! The beloved apostle Paul (who Christians accuse of telling us that the Law is done away with) says that He had not sinned against the Law. This is taking place years after Yehshua's death. Where are the Jews that could have immediately countered this statement with his breaking the Sabbath, eating what he wants, etc? You cannot look at this statement no other way except to add some kind of off the wall explanation to why Paul kept the Law.

Romans 2:14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves; 15. in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts [Same statement made concerning what the (Re)newed Covenant was going to be about in Hebrews 8:10], their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them );

     Now what law could Paul be possibly speaking about? Before one tries to argue that he was only speaking of the supposed new laws of Yeshua let's examine some things first. First, there is no examples of Yeshua making new laws that would make void the old laws. Yeshua magnified the law in every aspect e.g Adultery: In the law it was wrong to commit physically, Yeshua said that it was wrong to do it in the heart as well by looking at a woman in lust. Did you notice that the initial law has gone nowhere but instead has been elevated to a higher standard. So if people think the law is bondage what do they do with Yeshua making those standards even higher?

     It's like me stating that instead of just keeping the speed limit, you won't even dwell on the idea of breaking it in your heart. Second, who is to determine when he's speaking about the laws of Torah or when he's speaking about the supposed new laws, is it man, the preacher, the supposed theologian? G-d forbid such. It is obvious that he is speaking about all the laws from past and present.

Romans 3:31 Do we then make the law of none effect through faith? G-d forbid: nay, we ESTABLISH THE LAW..

     How does that statement go over with the idea that we are no longer needing to follow the law? This is a direct statement being made here for all those that say we're under grace so we're not under the law. Paul shows that he has a different take on the issue.

Romans 8:4 that the ordinance of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Hebrews 9:22 And according to the law, I may almost say, all things are cleansed with blood, and apart from shedding of blood there is no remission.

     Think on this for a moment, the death of the Meshiach was something required of the Law. We talk so much of G-d's grace and how we are not under law but even the salvation we have today had to be done in accordance to the Law.

1 John 3:4 Every one that doeth sin doeth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness [Greek Word: anomia: without law, illegality, violation of the law].  There you have it, sin is violating the LAW, iniquity is lawlessness.